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  • From: Lee Dahn <lee_dahn AT yahoo.com>
  • To: Corpus-Paul <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: RE: [Corpus-Paul] Did Paul break the Law?
  • Date: Thu, 13 Jan 2005 00:45:46 -0800 (PST)

I must apologize for introducing the generalizations about Paul's view of salvation on a thread specifically addressing with Paul's dealings with Onesimus as found in Philemon in relation to Deuteronomic law.  Thanks to Mark for taking the conversation in a more appropriate direction.  But, since the conversation has continued with the more generalized talk, I'll add a two more comments.

 

Jim, I'm not sure if there is ground for showing that Paul advocated 'two ways'.  I am more inclined to say that Paul only explicitly addressed the Gentile predicament.  For Paul it seems that in Christ Gentiles found law-fulfilment (cf. Rom2.13-14, 26-27 [texts in which I believe Paul speaks of Gentile Jesus-believers]; 8.4, 7-8; 13.8-10; Gal5.14 - all of which are addressed to Gentile audiences).

 

As to the fairness of it all, I'm not so sure as you that it "seems a tad unfair".  Israel had been on the receiving end of God's grace for years.  The pagan Gentiles had not.  Nothing had been done specifcially on behalf of the Gentiles to bring them in - or, in Paul's words, "graft them in".  ...until Christ came.  Paul saw in Christ the possibility of Gentile inclusion: the means by which God would fulfill all of the promises he had made to Israel to bring the nations in - or, in other terms, to "bless the nations [in Abraham]" (cf. Rom15.8-9).  So, to say that Israel drew the short end of the stick is for dismiss the generations of normalcy in living in a covenant relationship with God.  If Paul did advocate 'two ways', I don't see Israel being short changed at all - for she would only have to continue faithfully as she had been expected to before.  Perhaps one could argue that She should understand Jesus to be her Messiah.  But, then, Paul has taken up that argument as well, when he declares that Israel is hardened for now, but will in the end be "fully included", be brought to "life from death", and "receive mercy" (Rom11.11a, 12b, 15b, 26, 31).  Sounds like assuredness on Paul's part, with little view of Jesus as means.

 

Lee

 

Jim wrote:

 

So in essence Jews have to do by observing the law
what
gentiles don't have to bother with?  Seems a tad unfair to me.  But is
that
really what Paul thought?  Would Paul accept the notion that there is a
jewish way to god and a gentile way?



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