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  • From: "rabbisaul" <tim AT rabbisaul.com>
  • To: "Corpus-Paul" <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] Did Paul break the Law?
  • Date: Wed, 12 Jan 2005 12:00:29 -0700

----- Original Message ----- From: "Jim West" <jwest AT highland.net>
To: "Corpus-Paul" <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, January 12, 2005 11:42 AM
Subject: RE: [Corpus-Paul] Did Paul break the Law?


At 01:05 PM 1/12/2005, you wrote:
So, I don't see Paul doing away with the law entirely; rather, he seems to be saying that Gentiles are legit without having to follow the law, while seldom (I would say never) addressing the issue as regards Jews.

Lee

Excellent points. So in essence Jews have to do by observing the law what gentiles don't have to bother with? Seems a tad unfair to me. But is that really what Paul thought? Would Paul accept the notion that there is a jewish way to god and a gentile way?

I think you have two separate questions there. Paul has only one way of salvation: through the Messiah. Torah has become relativized in terms of its distinctives. But that very relativization means that Jews are free to continue to observe it (with the notable exception of any instances where it might bar full communion with Gentile Christians). Hence, in Acts (which I am assuming reliability for) you find Paul himself observing a Nazarite vow, and worshipping in the temple when he is in Jerusalem. There is never the slightest hint that he expects Jewish Christians to leave off circumcising their children. (And of course there is the tricky case of Timothy in Acts 16.1-3.)


Tim Gallant
Pastor, Conrad Christian Reformed Church

http://www.timgallant.org
tim | gallant site group








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