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  • From: "Charles Savelle" <chsavelle AT hotmail.com>
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: EPISPAOMAI in 1 Cor 7:18
  • Date: Wed, 18 Sep 2002 07:50:06 +0000


Billy,

Thanks for responding to my query so promptly. But I was wondering if you could point me to the specific Greco_roman literature that you are referring to and if it would not be too much trouble a few of the numerous references to get me started. Please forgive my ignorance and inexperience on this point. Thanks.

Charles,


From: Billy Evans <biblewje AT comcast.net>
Reply-To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: [corpus-paul] Re: EPISPAOMAI in 1 Cor 7:18
Date: Tue, 17 Sep 2002 17:00:43 -0500

on 9/17/02 1:02 PM, Charles Savelle at chsavelle AT hotmail.com wrote:

> Hello all,
>
> I have three interrelated questions regarding the use of the NT hapax
> EPISPAOMAI ("to remove the marks of circumcision")in 1 Cor 7:18.
> The first question pertains to the origin and background of the term. I
> haven't been too successful in finding much here. Is anyone aware of any
> detailed studies of the term?
> The second question is a little more historical, that is, is there any
> evidence that early Jewish Christians ever attempted to undo their
> circumcisions?
> The third question is more literary. If early Jewish Christians were not
> typically involved in being uncircumcised, then what is the purpose of
> Paul's reference to what basically would be a non-issue in 1 Cor 7:18? At
> this stage, I am inclined to think that Paul mentions it merely for the sake
> of balancing his argument and illustrating the comprehensiveness of the
> principle which he introduced in the previous verse. Any thoughts?
> Thanks in advance for any help you can offer in any or all of these
> questions.
>

Charles:

Regarding circumcisions: 1 Mac. 1:5 provides evidence of Jewish youth
removing the marks. Of course your question refers to Jewish Christians
taking this action. The answer is yes. I would suggest that you read
greco-roman literature for numerous situations where this was done. The
political situation after Claudius expelled the Jews from Rome in 49 CE, or after the Christian-Jewish split, or after the Jewish war with Rome would all provide a good justification for erasing such identity markers.

blessings:

William "Billy" J Evans Jr

Nashville
Doctorate Rabbinics, Dead Sea Scrolls, Targums at Hebrew Union College
Doctorate in NT at University of So. Africa


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