Yitzhak:
Did any of these authors who claimed that the sin/shin distinction in
Biblical Hebrew was the result of Aramaic influence mention that there
are several words sometimes written with a sin, sometimes with a shin,
but otherwise having the same meaning? That is not counting the roots
where one derivative is written with a sin and another a shin?
I take the existence of both situations as mentioned in the above
paragraph as evidences that prior to the Babylonian Exile, that sin
and shin were the same letter within Biblical Hebrew.
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.