On 04/01/2007 06:19, K Randolph wrote:
> Yitzhak:
>
> Did any of these authors who claimed that the sin/shin distinction in
> Biblical Hebrew was the result of Aramaic influence mention that there
> are several words sometimes written with a sin, sometimes with a shin,
> but otherwise having the same meaning? That is not counting the roots
> where one derivative is written with a sin and another a shin?
>
>
Which words are you referring to?
--
Peter Kirk
E-mail: peter AT qaya.org
Blog: http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/
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