> I take the existence of both situations as mentioned in the above
> paragraph as evidences that prior to the Babylonian Exile, that sin
> and shin were the same letter within Biblical Hebrew.
You take the "existence of both situations" as a given assumption, and
you allow nothing to disprove your own interpretations of these words.
That is really the problem and the difference between your statement of
the theory and these scholars'. For them, every assumption must be
proven.
Yitzhak Sapir
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