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[clhw AT InfoAve.Net (clhw)]

Paul -- I'm not trying to argue with you. You're just not getting what I'm
saying.

People who speak Spanish whose ancestry is truly Spanish, like maybe from
the conquistadors, are actual hispanics (Hispania is what the nation you
call Spain was called in antiquity. It is now named España -- you probably
don't see the tilde I just put in.)

People who came from either Spain or other Spanish-speaking countries are
generally called latinos. When they are asked where they are from, they
will name their country, not their ancestry. So "Mejicanos" are from
Mexico, etc.
I was not speaking about race, but national descendancy.

Now, there are many people from Central and South America who are mestizos
-- of mixed "blood", meaning they have Spanish ancestry and Native American
Indian ancestry, such as Toltec, Aztec, Maya, Incaico, etc. Very few of the
remaining Native Americans from Central and South America are not mixed.
Some of the former languages are still evident in name places. Texas is one
such. I am not contradicting the Texas Historical Society, of which my
family was one of the founding groups.

But those Native Americans did not originate from modern (post 1500 C.E)
western Europe. They pre-dated the Caucasians in America by centuries if
not millenia. So Texas is not named by an anglo-saxon name. It was not
named by the Spanish but by the Native Americans living there who had that
name.
Lynn

>To my understanding, people from Spain are classed as caucasian, the same
>as the more northern Europeans. Merely because they speak a more "Latin"
>type language is no excuse to divide them from the caucasian race.
>Actually the English language is quite highly Latin influenced/sourced
>also.
>
>I don't call ANYBODY latino or hispanic, they call themSELVES the one or
>the other. Which one SHOULD one use??
>
>There is a small, country town, near where I am in Texas called, "Bedias",
>pronounced, "Beddy-us", named after the Bedias Indians who dwelt there.
>Near that town is a Texas state historical marker, stating that Texas was
>named after the Tejas (Tehas) Indians whom the Spaniards encountered
>there; Tejas meaning "friendly". Excuse me if the state of Texas
>historical commission is wrong. But, the Spaniards didn't create the name.
>It was the name of the local tribe of Indians.
>
>It appears that Cristobol Colon was Christopher Columbus. Interesting
>trivia for "Jeopardy"!! But does anyone know who Elwood P. Suggins really
>is?? I do!!
>
>Paul Hillman
>  ----- Original Message -----
>  From: clhw<mailto:clhw AT InfoAve.Net>
>  To: homestead AT lists.ibiblio.org<mailto:homestead AT lists.ibiblio.org>
>  Sent: Saturday, November 06, 2004 8:47 PM
>  Subject: Re: [Homestead] steaming up again
>
>
>  Paul -- Where do you think Cristobol Colon came from?
>  Western Europe, yes, but the latinos you call hispanics are called that
>  because their ancestry is from Colon's country. And Texas was named in the
>  language of another ethnic group. Not anglo-saxon.
>