Kata Markon

["Jeffrey B. Gibson" <jgibson000 AT comcast.net>]

Norman Goos wrote:

> If one considers "satanas" a proper noun in the NT context, it does not need
> the article for definiteness.  The second item, however, could be using the
> article to display its anaphoric character, in other words, a backward
> reference.  Both uses of the article are common in the NT per Robertson,
> Wallace, et al.
>

That's a pretty big "if", isn't it?  And in any case,  whatever else might be
the case in the rest of the NT (and why limit ourselves to this corpus when we
are examining the meaning of Greek phrases?), SATANAS without the article =
proper name is against Markan usage.  And it is with Markan usage that I am
concerned.

Jeffrey


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Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon)
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