Kata Markon

["Norman Goos" <normangoos AT comcast.net>]

If one considers "satanas" a proper noun in the NT context, it does not need
the article for definiteness.  The second item, however, could be using the
article to display its anaphoric character, in other words, a backward
reference.  Both uses of the article are common in the NT per Robertson,
Wallace, et al.

Pastor Norman Goos
Christ's Wesleyan Church - Senior Pastor
The Kairos Institute (Trinidad) - President/Professor
577 E. Jimmie Leeds Road
Galloway, NJ 08205 USA
Study: 609-652-2238 (Voice mail here only)
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-----Original Message-----
From: gmark-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:gmark-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of David Barrett Peabody
Sent: Friday, August 03, 2007 10:44 AM
To: fathchuck AT aol.com
Cc: gmark AT lists.ibiblio.org; Synoptic AT yahoogroups.com
Subject: Re: [GMark] [Synoptic-L] parables in Mk. 3:23-27?

Charles<

The definite article does not appear in the Greek before either usage  
of satanas in Mk 3:23, but it does appear before the usage of satanas  
in 3:26.

D. B. Peabody

Quoting fathchuck AT aol.com:

> I'm a bit confused. I read Mark 3:23-27 in both English and Greek and see
no
> reference to both A satan and Satan. The text seems to simply say Satan,
> without any article or qualifier. Is this interpretation widely accepted?
>
>
>
> Rev. Charles Schwartz, Associate Pastor
> St. Joan of Arc
> Marlton, NJ
>
>
>
>
>
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-- 
David Barrett Peabody
Professor of Religion
Nebraska Wesleyan University
5000 St. Paul Ave.
Lincoln, NE 68504
(402) 465-2302
www.nebrwesleyan.edu/people/dbp


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