Kata Markon

[Richard Anderson <randerson58 AT comcast.net>]

In the Pauline literature there are articles discussing the criteria by
which one can determine whether or not Paul has made an allusion to Isaiah
or the passage is an echo of Isaiah. Has anyone including the proponent of
this Prometheus Bound argument identified and published any criteria by
which one can determine whether or not Mark has made an allusion to PB and
or Isaiah or the passage is an echo of PB and or Isaiah?  If so, what is
that criteria?

Richard H. Anderson
Wallingford PA

-----Original Message-----
From: JFAlward AT aol.com [mailto:JFAlward AT aol.com]
Sent: Saturday, April 20, 2002 9:40 PM
To: Kata Markon
Subject: [gmark] Re: Mark 4:12


In a message dated 4/20/02 9:01:18 AM Pacific Daylight Time,
jgibson000 AT attbi.com writes:

<< What evidence is there that PB was known to, let alone, used by, the
author of GMark or was a work that was known within the circles or the area
in which the author of GMark traveled? >>

More to the point, what evidence is there that the author of Mark was
unaware
of Isaiah?  Who would dare argue that Mark knew about Isaiah, and then
ignored it in favor of Prometheus Bound when he wrote 4:12?

Joseph F. Alward
"A Skeptical View of Christianity"
http://members.aol.com/jalw/joseph_alward.html

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