Kata Markon

[Steve Black <sblack AT axionet.com>]

Mk 9:11-13
 ...And they asked him, "Why do the scribes say that first Elijah 
must come?" And he said to them, "Elijah does come first to restore 
all things; and how is it written of the Son of man, that he should 
suffer many things and be treated with contempt? But I tell you that 
Elijah has come, and they did to him whatever they pleased, as it is 
written of him."

Many commentators on this passage believe it can best be explained by 
postulating glosses or interpolations (which is possible, of course).

As it stands, however, the term "Son of Man" seems to be referring to John!

Is there any reason that I may have missed (other than a circular 
argument about the greater context of the text) to abandon this line 
of reasoning?
--
Peace

Steve Black
Vancouver, BC