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Subject: Kata Markon

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  • From: Steve Black <sblack AT axionet.com>
  • To: Kata Markon <gmark AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Son of Man=John?!?
  • Date: Thu, 7 Jun 2001 11:46:34 -0800


Mk 9:11-13
...And they asked him, "Why do the scribes say that first Elijah must come?" And he said to them, "Elijah does come first to restore all things; and how is it written of the Son of man, that he should suffer many things and be treated with contempt? But I tell you that Elijah has come, and they did to him whatever they pleased, as it is written of him."

Many commentators on this passage believe it can best be explained by postulating glosses or interpolations (which is possible, of course).

As it stands, however, the term "Son of Man" seems to be referring to John!

Is there any reason that I may have missed (other than a circular argument about the greater context of the text) to abandon this line of reasoning?
--
Peace

Steve Black
Vancouver, BC




  • Son of Man=John?!?, Steve Black, 06/07/2001

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