Kata Markon

["Rikki E. Watts" <rwatts AT interchange.ubc.ca>]

Stefan

Perhaps the solution lies in the fact that the data appear to be of
different kinds.  One could well understand Gentile readers, especially if
they have spent some time in Synagogue and/or under Christian instruction,
knowing some of the more important (notably eschatological hope) elements of
the Scriptures; hence the unexplained allusions.  On the other hand, details
as to facets of Jewish observance (as Mark understood it) may not have been
so well known to them.  E.g. he might have assumed that his readers knew
enough about Sabbath observance (general knowledge) while on the other hand
believing that they might know be aware of the practice of washing (how many
Gentiles would have been present at a Jewish meal to know what Jews did
before eating?).  


Blessings
Rikk



Dr. R. E. Watts (PhD, Cantab)          Phone   (604) 224 3245
Regent College,                          Fax     (604) 224 3097
5800 University Boulevard    
Vancouver, BC
CANADA  V6T 2E4


> From: "Stefan Lücking" <stefan.luecking AT uni-muenster.de>
> Reply-To: "Kata Markon" <gmark AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
> Date: Sun, 20 Feb 2000 15:46:43
> To: "Kata Markon" <gmark AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
> Subject: [gmark] Mark 7:3-4 and the readers of Mark
> 
> The long explanation of Jewish purity customs in Mark 7,3-4 normally serves
> as argument that the Markan readers are gentile Christians. But the
> uniqueness of this gloss within the gospel of Mark makes me doubt if it
> alone is sufficient proof for this thesis with its repercussions on the
> understanding of the whole Gospel.
> First of all, it is the only explanation of Jewish customs (by the author
> of Mark) I found in the whole Gospel. In other debates about Jewish customs
> there are no such explanations.
> Second, the use of "all Jews/Judaeans" (PANTES hOI IOUDAIOI) is unique to
> the gospel and appears to me very unmarkan. Elsewhere, Mark uses the word
> "Judaeans" (IOUDAIOI) only in the mouth of gentiles (Pilate 15:2, 15:9,
> 15:12; the Roman soldiers 15:28) and in the Roman inscription on the cross
> whereas Jewish mockers use the expression "King of Israel" (15:32).
> Third, there are so many unexplained allusions to and suppositions from a
> Jewish background in the gospel of Mark, that I can hardly imagine how
> gentile Christians could understand large parts of the gospel (e.g., the
> prologue) if they had not been so deeply introduced into Jewish culture
> that it would not make any sense to speak of a "gentile" Christians (but of
> Christian "proselytes" or so).
> Fourth, I don t see where problems which are specific for gentile
> Christians (as e.g. social relations to the gentile environment) are
> treated. Just compare the problems Paul discusses in 1 Corinthians.
> Monotheism is self evident as one side of the highest command (Mark
> 12:28-34), but there is no polemic against polytheism - apart from very
> subtle allusions to Scripture as in Mark 5:1-20. Typically Jewish Christian
> problems, however, as the Sabbath, purity laws, the temple are treated
> throughout the gospel.
> 
> So, I am really puzzled. For, on the one hand, Mark 7:3-4 is very strong
> evidence for gentile readers with few knowledge about Jewish life. On the
> other hand a lot of other indicators point to Jewish Christian readers.
> Now, I would like to ask: What can I do with this contradictory evidence
> concerning the readers of Mark? Related to this question are a couple of
> other questions: Is there any other evidence for gentile Christian readers
> in the Gospel of Mark? If so: how could these readers understand the
> allusions and hidden quotes from Scripture and other Jewish literature? On
> the other hand: if the Markan readers were Jewish Christian, how can the
> gloss in Mark 7:2-4 be explained?
> 
> Thank you in advance for your answers.
> 
> Stefan Lücking
> University of Münster, Germany
> 
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