Kata Markon

["Stefan L�cking" <stefan.luecking AT uni-muenster.de>]

The long explanation of Jewish purity customs in Mark 7,3-4 normally serves 
as argument that the Markan readers are gentile Christians. But the 
uniqueness of this gloss within the gospel of Mark makes me doubt if it 
alone is sufficient proof for this thesis with its repercussions on the 
understanding of the whole Gospel.
        First of all, it is the only explanation of Jewish customs (by the 
author 
of Mark) I found in the whole Gospel. In other debates about Jewish customs 
there are no such explanations.
        Second, the use of "all Jews/Judaeans" (PANTES hOI IOUDAIOI) is 
unique to 
the gospel and appears to me very unmarkan. Elsewhere, Mark uses the word 
"Judaeans" (IOUDAIOI) only in the mouth of gentiles (Pilate 15:2, 15:9, 
15:12; the Roman soldiers 15:28) and in the Roman inscription on the cross 
whereas Jewish mockers use the expression "King of Israel" (15:32).
        Third, there are so many unexplained allusions to and suppositions 
from a 
Jewish background in the gospel of Mark, that I can hardly imagine how 
gentile Christians could understand large parts of the gospel (e.g., the 
prologue) if they had not been so deeply introduced into Jewish culture 
that it would not make any sense to speak of a "gentile" Christians (but of 
Christian "proselytes" or so).
        Fourth, I don t see where problems which are specific for gentile 
Christians (as e.g. social relations to the gentile environment) are 
treated. Just compare the problems Paul discusses in 1 Corinthians. 
Monotheism is self evident as one side of the highest command (Mark 
12:28-34), but there is no polemic against polytheism - apart from very 
subtle allusions to Scripture as in Mark 5:1-20. Typically Jewish Christian 
problems, however, as the Sabbath, purity laws, the temple are treated 
throughout the gospel.

        So, I am really puzzled. For, on the one hand, Mark 7:3-4 is very 
strong 
evidence for gentile readers with few knowledge about Jewish life. On the 
other hand a lot of other indicators point to Jewish Christian readers.
        Now, I would like to ask: What can I do with this contradictory 
evidence 
concerning the readers of Mark? Related to this question are a couple of 
other questions: Is there any other evidence for gentile Christian readers 
in the Gospel of Mark? If so: how could these readers understand the 
allusions and hidden quotes from Scripture and other Jewish literature? On 
the other hand: if the Markan readers were Jewish Christian, how can the 
gloss in Mark 7:2-4 be explained?

Thank you in advance for your answers.

Stefan Lücking
University of Münster, Germany