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  • From: "Tim Gallant" <tim AT rabbisaul.com>
  • To: "Corpus-Paul" <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] Approaches to the question of divine-Christolog
  • Date: Thu, 16 Jun 2005 12:23:13 -0600

Now, moving the focus to "demons" does not change anything because
daimonion does not refer to demons in our sense but to (lesser) spiritual
powers--some beneficent, some malevolent. This is particularly the case in
the Roman environment. So when Paul refers to demons he does not necessarily
refer to minions of the devil. These may be the powers that rule the
heavens, though in other contexts they may be exalted ancestors who have
some influence in the spirit world. So here again, we must be careful not
to be anachronistic on yet another score.

Paul, however, says that he does not want the Corinthians to have koinonia with these daimon-figures - it is scarcely imaginable that he considers them to be "beneficient." He is not only opposed to daimon-worship, he is opposed to any partnership with them whatsoever. However the daimonion terminology may have been employed in the Greco-Roman world, there is no instance where it is employed in a positive sense in the New Testament, whether in Paul or elsewhere. The only neutral sense that I can find is placed upon the lips of unbelievers in Acts 17.18, and in that passage Paul is portrayed as fundamentally opposing their "piety" and view of "the divine" (see esp 17.29).

Moreover, I don't find your claim regarding anachronism to be compelling. Even if you were to suggest that all of the Gospels are much later than Paul (which I don't buy, and most people think that Mark, at least, is quite early), they are early enough to demonstrate that during the general period, it is evident to suppose that evil spirits=demons (e.g. Lk 9.42; cf 1 Tim 4.1; Rev 18.2), and are associated with "the devil." Surely "the prince of demons" in Mark 3.22 is the devil; Luke's version makes Beelzebul, the prince of demons and "the satan" (ho satanas) identical (Lk 2.11-14ff). In terms of the New Testament as a whole, it is no anachronism to identify daimonia as "minions of the devil."

Further, to believe that one "being" is the source of all things
does not keep various philosophers from recognizing that there are real
beings in the realm of divinity. Emanation theories allow both sorts of
assertions--think of Philo.

But where in Paul is there a hint of an emanation theory? And what is "the realm of divinity"?

Would Paul distinguish the God of Israel from other gods? Yes. He
would say that the God of Israel is over and the source of all things.
Would he feel a contradiction between this and acknowledging that there are
indeed many gods? I doubt it. The tortured discussion of 1 Cor 8-10 shows
that he acknowledges the existence of many beings that can be given the rank
of god.

I've already dealt with this, so no comment other than the observation that I don't find Paul's discussion "tortured" in the slightest. On a related note, Tony Costa's observation from Galatians 4.8-9 is right on the money.

These beings are real and may cause harm or give blessing. Still
Paul says you must not worship them. I think Frank is right that the
prophets of Israel call their fellows not to worship other gods and they
deny those beings that some worship the rank of 'god'. But if you had asked
if Baal is real, they would have said, Yes. Not to be worshipped and not as
powerful, but a god.

A "god" in some sense, but again, really not gods (Gal 4.8-9). Meaning, powerful beings that people have worshipped as gods, but inappropriately. As I said before, this is no different from what most people have meant by monotheism. The only "monotheism" that is disqualified is a post-Enlightenment discounting of the entire spiritual realm, it seems to me.

tim
----------------------------
Tim Gallant
Pastor, Conrad Christian Reformed Church
http://www.timgallant.org





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