Corpus-Paul

[moon AT mail.sogang.ac.kr]

Hi, Harold,

could you tell us why the second reading is more reasonable?

Doesn't Paul state 4:9b-10 as if the answer to the question 9a is obvious,
that is, is "to the uncircumcised as well"? The connective OUN in 4:9a
may be taken to mean "therefore" (strong connection) or "then" (less strong
connection). If we take OUN to mean "therefore", then we can take
the question 4:9a to be a rhetorical question.

So, I would like to listen to your argument for the second reading.

Sincerely
Moon R. Jung
Sogang Univ, Seoul, KOrea

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Re: [Corpus-Paul] The logic connection between Rom 4:1-8 and 9
>
> Re: [Corpus-Paul] The logic connection between Rom4:1-8Dear Moon,
>
>
> The question of Rom 4:9ais important to understand Rom 4:
>
> This blessing, then - is it given (only) to the circumcised or
> to the uncircumcised also?
>
> This question reminds us of the question of 3:29:
> Or, is God the God of Jews only? not the God of Gentiles also?
>
> It indicates that the issue Paul addresses in Rom 4:1-9 is quite
> similar to the issue Paul addresses in Rom 3:27-31.
>
> Anyway, my question is how this question is logically connected to theprevious
> paragraph 4:1-8. I can think of two ways to link 4:9a to theprevious
> paragraph. I would like to hear comments about each.
>
> (1) The first key to interpretation is to ask:
> Is 4:9a a rhetorical question or a genuine question?
>
> Suppose that 4:9a is a rhetorical question. Then
> it means that the paragraph of 4:1-8 implies
> the answer "also to the uncircumcised" to the question.Then, we can
> reasonably assume that by "EX ERGWN" (from works) and"CWRIS ERGWN"
> (apart from works), Paul refers to the works of Torah, which canbe
> done only by the Jews who possess Torah.
>
> If both Abraham and David (or the person whom he refers to) were
> justified apart from works of Torah, which only the uncircumcised
> can perform, it would imply that the blessing of justification
> is given to the circumcised (represented by David) and to theuncircumcised
> as well (represented by Abraham).
>
> Rom 4:9b-10 confirms or explain the answer "also to theuncircumcised",
> implicit in the paragraph 4:1-8, by means of a clearer argument.
>
> (2) Suppose that 4:9a is a genuine question, whose answer is notimplied
> in the paragraph 4:1-8 or vaguely implied in it.
> Then 4:9b-10 provides the answer to the question. In this case,
> "not from works" or "apart from works" does notnecessarily
> imply that the blessing is also given to the uncircumcised.
> That claim should be further argued. Then we do not have
> to assume that by "EX ERGWN" (from works) and "CWRISERGWN"
> (apart from works), Paul refers to the works of Torah, which canbe
> performed only by the Jews.
>
>
> HH: I have always read it the second way, that the followingverses give the answer to the question in Rom 4:9a:
>
>
> Rom. 4:9 ?Is thisblessedness only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised?We have been saying that Abraham's faith was credited to him asrighteousness.
> Rom. 4:10 Under whatcircumstances was it credited? Was it after he was circumcised, orbefore? It was not after, but before! (etc.)
>
>


> Yours,
> Harold Holmyard
>
>
>
>
>
>
>


Moon R. Jung
Associate Professor
Dept of Media Technology
Graduate School of Media Comm
Sogang Univ, Seoul, Korea