Skip to Content.
Sympa Menu

corpus-paul - RE:Gal 1:22

corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org

Subject: Corpus-Paul

List archive

Chronological Thread  
  • From: "Ray Pickett" <rpickett AT lsps.edu>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: RE:Gal 1:22
  • Date: Wed, 17 Oct 2001 14:42:39 -0500


As we were reading through Gal 1 in my Greek Readings class yesterday I was,
for the first time, puzzled by why Paul would qualify "tais ekklesias tes
Ioudaias" with "tais en Xristo". Why would he do this unless there were
ekklesias in Judea that were not in Christ? Could this mean that he is using
the term "ekklesia" to refer to Jewish congregations in Judea, some of which
are in Christ? If so, wouldn't this suggest that Paul uses this word, in
accordance with its usage in the LXX, to link the congregations he is
founding to Jewish congregations? The translation "churches" suggests
something rather distinct, but is it possible that this term is suitable to
Paul precisely because it links the communities he is forming with Israel?

Ray Pickett




  • RE:Gal 1:22, Ray Pickett, 10/17/2001
    • <Possible follow-up(s)>
    • RE:Gal 1:22, John Lupia, 10/17/2001

Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.

Top of Page