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  • From: "Mesfin Atlaye" <mesfin AT idirect.com>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Gal. 6:11
  • Date: Tue, 16 Oct 2001 18:51:28 -0400

Dear Listers,
 
It has long been supposed that Paul entrusted the formulation of his letters to secretaries; and he authenticated his dictation by adding greetings with his own hand “th`/ ejmh`/ ceiriv” (I Cor.16:21; Gal. 6:11; Phlm. 19 and if authentic Col. 4:18; II Thes. 3:17). However, I have difficulty to understand why the EGRAPSA in Gal. 6:11 should be read as an epistolary aorist. Is there strong grammatical reason, other than the fact that one is persuaded by the argument 'Paul used secretaries for all his letters', why the aorist indicative should not be simply read as immediate past. I am aware of Longenecker's article “Ancient Amanuenses and the Pauline Epistles,” in New Dimensions in the New Testament Study (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1974) pp. 289-29, where he suggests Paul wrote only vv. 11-18. Most others follow his conclusion without their own independent argument and judgement. What if Paul wrote the entire letter to the Galatians in his own distinctive hand?
 
Can someone comment on this line of thought or refer me to other works, in English.
 
 
Mesfin Atlaye
Toronto. 
 
 
 



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