Corpus-Paul

["moon-ryul jung" <moon AT saint.soongsil.ac.kr>]

[Moon]
> >I keep asking this question, which you do not seem to answer exactly,
> >because there seem to be no reasons why they would chosen a pagan solution
> >against a Jewish solution for the dillema. If I am right here,
> >there is no reason why "returning to the weak and poor
> >stoicheia" in Gal 4:8-10 refers to complying with the pagan social norms.
>  
[Mark'

> I hope I have clarified that the issue is not as stated here, not "a 
> pagan solution against a Jewish solution for the dilemma," but an 
> agreed pagan/Jewish solution.
> 

The issue has been made clearer. Thanks. I think I meant the
agreed pagan/Jewish solution by "the Jewish solution", though it turned
out that this was not the correct term.  But then the issue I raised still
remains. If "returning to the weak and poor stoicheia" in Gal 4:8-10 means
returning to the pagan practices as you suggest, it means that they
had chosen a strictly pagan solution rather than the agreed pagan/Jewish
solution. Here is where my problem lies. It seems obvious 
that they would have preferred the agreed pagan/Jewish solution. At the
least
it did not mean that they were deserting God they came to know. But
returning
to the pagan practices is different. It would have caused the uneasiness
that they were perhaps deserting God.

They had two choices, the agreed Pagan/Jewish solution vs the Pagan
solution.
Your interpretation says that some of the Galatians chose the Pagan
solution,
whereas some the agreed Pagan/Jewish solution. I do not understand what
would have been the motivation for them to have chosen the Pagan solution.

Having framed my question this way, I fear that I still missed your point.
Perhaps you might be arguing as follows:

The fact that they complied with the agreed Pagan/Jewish solution meant
they
became deeply concerned about the pressure/persecution caused by their
non-
compliance with the pagan worship. It means that they were considering 
complying with the pagan worship practices. Paul criticises exactly that.
That was what drove them to comply with the agreed Pagan/Jewish solution.
Criticising that they were going back to the pagan practices was the same
thing as criticising that they complied with the agreed Pagan/Jewish
solution.
Is this what you have in mind?

But Paul said that they actually complied with the pagan practices (Gal
4:8-10)
according to your interpretation. (Are you saying that they were just 
considering it in their mind?) That I do not understand. Why would they
have
complied with the pagan practices? I had a much better choice, the agreed
Pagan/Jewish solution. They might have thought it was a comprimise, but
a much better on than the strictly pagan solution. 

Regards 
Moon

Moon-Ryul Jung
Associate Professor
Sogang Univ, Seoul, Korea