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  • From: "Alexander LaBrecque" <evangelica AT earthlink.net>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: WAS: Re: Romans 10:1-4, NOW: Paul's use of scripture
  • Date: Mon, 27 Mar 2000 09:22:20 -0800


In 2 Cor 3, did Paul's midrash on Exodus 34 "have the original context in
mind" when he specified that the purpose of Moses' veil was deception, so
that the people of Israel would not perceive the Torah's glory was temporal?
(note the purpose clause in 3:13). The Exodus 34 passage suggests no such
thing, and more consistently a rabbinic tradition claimed that the glory
remained on Moses' face to the end of his life.

Again, Jeremiah and Ezekiel envision Israel's renewal as effecting obedience
to the Torah, whereas in 2 Cor 3 what is written on believers' hearts is not
the Torah but the knowledge of God revealed by the Spirit of the risen
Christ. For Paul, the Torah's glory (which no longer exists) has been
surpassed by the eschatological realities of Christ's resurrection and the
Spirit.

If we force Paul's statements to be consistent with scripture, we prevent
ourselves from understanding Paul's purpose and perspective.

Alex LaBrecque
evangelica AT earthlink.net

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Paul Toseland [mailto:paul AT toseland.f9.co.uk]
> Sent: Monday, March 27, 2000 3:25 AM
> To: Corpus-paul
> Subject: [corpus-paul] Re: Romans 10:1-4
>
>
> Dear Alexander
>
> >Paul's explicit citations of scripture habitually appropriate the
> words or
> >phrases of biblical texts to express the point that Paul wishes to
> make,
> >without regard for any intended or contextual meaning of the cited
> >scripture. Paul's quotation of scripture may even contradict what is
> clearly
> evident from the quoted scripture.
>
> > Example #1: In 2 Cor 3 Paul's usage of biblical terminology
> makes a negating
> >dichotomy between the Torah and the "new covenant" of "the
> Spirit," whereas
> >that negation is nowhere evident or even implicit in the alleged
> biblical sources
> >of Paul's terminology.
>
> With respect, I would argue that 2 Corinthians 3 in fact offers a
> remarkable insight
> into Paul's use of the OT (and also of later sources), showing that his
> echoes and
> allusions, as well as his actual citations, do indeed have the original
> context in
> mind.
> Perhaps I could comment briefly on 2 Cor 3:3. Paul says that the
> Corinthian church
> is a letter from Christ, inscribed on his heart “not with ink, but by
> the Spirit of
> the
> living God, not on tablets of stone, but on tablets of fleshly hearts”.
> The
> expression
> KARDIAIS SARKINAIS suggests an allusion to the new covenant traditions
> of Ezek 11:19
> and / or 36:26 LXX, in which hearts of stone are contrasted with hearts
> of flesh
> (KARDIAN SARKINHN). The mention of the Spirit writing on hearts brings
> to mind the
> related new covenant tradition of Jer 31:31-34, and, following later
> tradition, Paul
> treats these as mutually interpreting texts. The church has been
> inscribed on his
> fleshly heart by the Spirit. A stony heart is incapable of love, but
> Paul's heart has
>
> been renewed in accordance with the promises of the new covenant. The
> church
> engraved on his heart is therefore a metaphor for his profound love for
> the church.
> This love, which was placed in his heart by the Spirit when he founded
> the church
> (DIAKONHTHEISA hUPH' hHMWN), is subtly contrasted with the self-interest
> of his
> opponents, Jewish unbelievers (despite their claims to be servants of
> Christ) whose
> stony hearts are incapable of such love.
>
> Regards
>
> Paul Toseland
>
http://www.toseland.f9.co.uk/paul/ccindex.htm

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