Skip to Content.
Sympa Menu

corpus-paul - Gal 2:16/ Pss

corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org

Subject: Corpus-Paul

List archive

Chronological Thread  
  • From: Fish__44 AT excite.com
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Gal 2:16/ Pss
  • Date: Fri, 17 Mar 2000 08:47:18 -0800 (PST)


Greetings,

I have greatly enjoyed the ongoing conversations concerning Paul's
letter to the Galatians and have a question of my own which I would like to
submit. It tends to run in a little different direction then the previous
threads, but it deals (as usual) with justification and Paul's understanding
of it. My two-part question concerning Paul is based on the last line of Gal
2:16: OU DIKAIWQHSETAI PASA SARX. To what extent can it be argue that this
is an allusion to Ps 142:2: OTI OU DIKAIWQHSETAI ENWPION SOU PAS ZWN? Are
there grounds which would
strengthen the notion of this being an allusion, or are we simply
finding here parallel language from distinctly different sources? If it
is possible to consider psalm 142 to be a source for Paul, is it also
possible to argue that Paul's understanding of justification and
righteousness are defined in accordance with justification and
righteousness in the Psalms (here I am speaking specifically about the
righteousness inherent in the Psalms of Temple Entry, which seems to
also be incorporated throughout the rest of psalmody)? My point is
this: If Paul were alluding to this specific psalm because of its
exacting language, and because he more or less understood the concept of
social ethics as a means towards righteousness in the Psalms, then
wouldn't it be possible to expand on his notion of what it meant to be
justified before the Lord (that in no sense was works righteousness ever a
viable means to setting oneself right before God, but that it was always
more about social behavior; cf. Mic 6, Isa 1:10-20)? To my
knowledge Paul used scripture in various ways, but for the most part he
used it as both a means of authorizing an argument and also for
elaborating his position, and I therefore wonder if he is not here
relying on the definition of psalmic righteousness proper, yet
re-interpreting it with a christological slant? Similarly with Abraham,
he relied on the covenant symbolism, however he gave it a new slant as
being evidence for the inclusion of the nations.

Any thoughts you might have will be appreciated, as well as suggested
reading material for further study.

Thanks and May God Bless,
--
Cameron P. VanEpps
2610 Erie St.
Bellingham, WA 98226
phone: (360) 715-8873
e-mail: vanepps AT home.com





_______________________________________________________
Get 100% FREE Internet Access powered by Excite
Visit http://freelane.excite.com/freeisp





Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.

Top of Page