Corpus-Paul

["Liz Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>]

> From: moon-ryul jung

>
> Again, how do you interpret Paul's statement quoted above?  "They (Jews)
> has not attain the law because they did not do so not from faith
> but AS IF
> from works [of the law]". Dunn thinks that the "AS IF" implies some
> illusion
> which Jews had have.

Sometimes Paul says that Jews obey the law because they think they can be
righteous by it.  At other times he says that Jews boast of possessing the
law without following it. This illustrates the polmical nature of Paul's
discourse. It seems to me that both statements together may characterize
first centruy Judaism.  To the Jew, having the law -- to whatever degree it
is followed -- is a sign of covenantal status and a share in the world to
come.  This is a matter of God's grace which the Jew takes on faith.  But
additionally, observing the law is how the Jew becomes righteous.  For those
Jews who want to be a Tsaddik, this is how, by observing every jot and
tittle of the law.

That Paul can criticize Jews on both counts illustrates that the real
problem he has against Judaism is, as Sanders says, it isn't Christian.

Then, right after Gal 2:16 Paul says "Is Christ then a servant of sin?" To
me it seems that he doesn't answer this question until Gal 5:13-26. Christ
becomes a servant of sin if the Christian does not live by the spriit and
crucify his flesh with its passions and desires.  Sin then is defined by the
law, which he says has become obsolete.  The Christian it seems to me is
bound by the law far more than is the Jew, because for Paul you really do
have to be righteous, a Tsaddik (according to the *Jewish* definition) to
inherit the kingdom of God. Whereas to the Jew, the Jew inherits it by
grace.

Liz

>
Lisbeth S. Fried
Department of Hebrew and Judaic Studies
New York University
51 Washington Sq. S.
New York, NY 10012
lqf9256 AT is3.nyu.edu
lizfried AT umich.edu