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  • From: Ronald Troxel <rltroxel AT facstaff.wisc.edu>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Paul's "conversion?"
  • Date: Sat, 3 Apr 1999 17:44:54 -0600


Stevan Davies
[snip]
>But upon further reflection, it seems to me that Gal 1:13-23
>depicts a "conversion" that will fit almost any reasonable
>definition.

Ron
While I think you are right that Paul's crisis qualifies as a "conversion,"
the salient question is how Paul articulates this experience.
Intriguingly, Paul's words in Gal 1: 15-16 betray a sense of continuity
with his past by articulating his "Damascus road experience" in terms of a
prophetic call from his God (with language drawn from Jeremiah 1): "But
when God, who had set me apart before I was born and called me through his
grace, was pleased to reveal his Son to me, so that I might proclaim him
among the Gentiles, I did not confer with any human being . . . ." Paul
does not articulate this as a fundamental change of allegiances, but as a
call from his life-long God. This description is striking, given the
occasions when Paul speaks of a disjunction between his former and present
life of faith.

It seems to me, however, that we must keep in mind Paul's purpose in
Galatians 1. Rather than writing in "simple" autobiographical mode, he is
arguing for the validity of his authority as an apostle. Thus, his
description of the "Damascus road experience" is cast as a call narrative,
complete with language drawn from Jeremiah's call narrative, to stress his
divine authorization. Is not this another case in which we ought not to
look to Paul to give us an account of his "belief system," but to
understand his words in the light of his rhetorical intent?

Ron

Ronald L. Troxel, Ph.D.
Department of Hebrew and Semitic Studies
1340 Van Hise Hall
1220 Linden Dr.
Madison, WI 53706




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