Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Jerry Shepherd <jshepherd53 AT gmail.com>]

Hi Ari,

 

I failed to mention in that last email that, the second passage I quoted from GKC relates in particular to the second verse you mentioned in 1 Chron 9:32.

 

So what I think is happening here is that in neither of these cases is there a true construct involved.  Rather, in Num 28:10, the first word is pointed as a construct, as happens in other places in the Hebrew Bible where the same thing happens in a prepositional phrase.  In the 1 Chron 9:32 passage, the two words are not strictly in construct, but falls in line with what sometimes happens in other appositional instances, where the first word is pointed as if construct.

 

Blessings,

 

Jerry

Jerry Shepherd

Taylor Seminary

Edmonton, Alberta

jshepherd53 AT gmail.com

 

On Wed, Aug 7, 2013 at 6:37 AM, AMK Judaica <amkjudaica AT hotmail.com> wrote:

The following examples of שבת have a patah under the bet rather than the expected kamatz:
 
2. Numbers: 28:10
עֹלַ֥ת שַׁבַּ֖ת בְּשַׁבַּתּ֑וֹ עַל-עֹלַ֥ת הַתָּמִ֖יד וְנִסְכָּֽהּ׃ פ
4. Chronicles I: 9:32
וּמִן-בְּנֵ֧י הַקֳּהָתִ֛י מִן-אֲחֵיהֶ֖ם עַל-לֶ֣חֶם הַֽמַּעֲרָ֑כֶת לְהָכִ֖ין שַׁבַּ֥ת שַׁבָּֽת׃
 
Some references list these occurrences under a construct rubric, which explains the patah. But why is there a construct state here? And regarding the first example, why does the identical phrase
 
2. Isaiah: 66:23
וְהָיָ֗ה מִֽדֵּי-חֹ֙דֶשׁ֙ בְּחָדְשׁ֔וֹ וּמִדֵּ֥י שַׁבָּ֖ת בְּשַׁבַּתּ֑וֹ יָב֧וֹא כָל-בָּשָׂ֛ר לְהִשְׁתַּחֲוֹ֥ת לְפָנַ֖י אָמַ֥ר ה'׃

have a kamatz?
 
Thank you,
Ari
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Ari Kinsberg
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Brooklyn, New York
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