Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Rolf" <rolf.furuli AT sf-nett.no>]

Dear Bryant,

I will make comments your last two points. 
 
 
Onsdag 15. Mai 2013 16:56 CEST skrev "Rev. Bryant J. Williams III" 
<bjwvmw AT com-pair.net>: 
 
> George, Rolf, et al,
> 
> First, thank you all for this discussion.
> 
> Second, if George is correct regarding the wayyiqtol in narrative is 
> actually a "present tense" or "live action" verb, then how does one explain 
> its use in poetic and prophetic texts?
> 
> Third, if Rolf is correct about the wayyiqtol developing from Medieval use 
> in synagogues, then is there really such a thing as a "wayyiqtol" since it 
> appears that it developed from waw + yiqtol with a doubling of the yodh?

RF: Yes, there is no such thing as a *grammatical form*  WAYYIQTOL that is 
distinguished from the *grammatical forms* YIQTOL and WEYIQTOL. My argument 
is that Classical Hebrew, like Aramaic, Phoenician, and Ugaritic (the 
disticntion between YAQTUL and YAQTULU is questionable) has one prefix 
conjugation and one suffix conjugation.
> 
> Fourth, it appears that the DSS would have more influence on what is 
> determined to be Hebrew Grammar?

RF: No, I do not think that the DSS has, or has had, much influence of Hebrew 
Grammar. For all who are interested in the meaning of Hebrew verbs I 
recommend the book: L. McFall, "The Enigma of the Hebrew Verbal System," 
1982. The author discusses the different explanations of WAYYIQTOL from the 
Middle Ages and to the middle of the 20th century. There are surprisingly 
many different explanations.


Best regards,

Rolf Furuli
Stavern
Norway

> 
> Rev. Bryant J. Williams III