Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

Karl,

 

after all the posts you, me and other list members have sent on the issue HLK-NP$ in Ecc 6:9, are you still thinking that NP$ must be a Niphal form?

 

Kind regards,

 

Pere Porta

2013/1/13 K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>

Pere:

On Fri, Jan 11, 2013 at 10:40 PM, Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com> wrote:

Are you sure, Karl, that HLK here (Ecc 6:9) is a noun and not a verb in the Qal Infinitive construct so that NP$ depends on it?

You know I read the text without points, so I have to depend on context to tell me what sort of form each word has, whether verb, adjective, noun, etc. So far I have found no context that defines an infinitive construct. So I question if it even existed in Biblical Hebrew. From the points, it existed for Masoretic Hebrew, was this something brought into Hebrew from Aramaic?

This is why I asked you not to analyze the verb in isolation according to its Masoretic points, but to analyze it according to its context and defend your claims from that.

So what is your translation of the whole verse, not just of one word in isolation?

 

Kind regards.

 

Pere Porta

Karl W. Randolph. 

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Pere Porta