Biblical Hebrew Forum

[kenneth greifer <kenneth AT messianicmistakes.com>]

Karl,

 

The only place I could find that calls Israel two nations is in Ezekiel37:22 about the two kingdoms becoming one nation. I don't think the tribes were called peoples usually, but maybe they could have been called that.

 

Your idea of combining verses differently sounds interesting. I have never heard that before. I don't think you are right because the verses sound a little funny. I think the usual way sounds better. I have to think about  it more.

 

Kenneth Greifer

P.S. Am I supposed to reply to all or just press reply? I never understood exactly how you reply on B-Hebrew. If I reply to all, does that send emails to everyone else on my contact list?

--- On Wed, 12/26/12, K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com> wrote:

From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Deuteronomy 32:8-9
To: "kenneth greifer" <kenneth AT messianicmistakes.com>
Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Date: Wednesday, December 26, 2012, 5:06 PM

Kenneth:

Why shouldn’t we consider that the verse divisions are wrong, that the final phrase of verse 8 really belongs as the first phrase of verse 9? Then you’d have verse 8 referring to the nations (Is there any case where Israel is referred to as nations (plural)?) and verse 9 to Israel?

Karl W. Randolph.

On Wed, Dec 26, 2012 at 1:13 PM, kenneth greifer <kenneth AT messianicmistakes.com> wrote:

Deut.32:8-9 says something like "...when He divided the sons of man, He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the portion of the L-rd is His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."

I was thinking that maybe it says "...when He divided the sons of a man (not mankind), He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the L-rd divided His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."

Maybe Jacob's sons were peoples like Gen. 28:3 says an assembly of peoples would come from him. Maybe G-d divided the sons of a man (Jacob) and set the borders for the peoples who came from him, the tribes of Israel.

I have read that adam can mean man or mankind, so maybe the usual translation is wrong. Any opinions?

Kenneth Greifer
http://www.messianicmistakes.com/
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