Biblical Hebrew Forum

[kenneth greifer <kenneth AT messianicmistakes.com>]

Deut.32:8-9 says something like "...when He divided the sons of man, He set 
the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the 
portion of the L-rd is His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."

I was thinking that maybe it says "...when He divided the sons of a man (not 
mankind), He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, 
because the L-rd divided His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."
 
Maybe Jacob's sons were peoples like Gen. 28:3 says an assembly of peoples 
would come from him. Maybe G-d divided the sons of a man (Jacob) and set the 
borders for the peoples who came from him, the tribes of Israel.

I have read that adam can mean man or mankind, so maybe the usual translation 
is wrong. Any opinions?

Kenneth Greifer
http://www.messianicmistakes.com/