Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Kenneth:

Why shouldn’t we consider that the verse divisions are wrong, that the final phrase of verse 8 really belongs as the first phrase of verse 9? Then you’d have verse 8 referring to the nations (Is there any case where Israel is referred to as nations (plural)?) and verse 9 to Israel?

Karl W. Randolph.

On Wed, Dec 26, 2012 at 1:13 PM, kenneth greifer <kenneth AT messianicmistakes.com> wrote:

Deut.32:8-9 says something like "...when He divided the sons of man, He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the portion of the L-rd is His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."

I was thinking that maybe it says "...when He divided the sons of a man (not mankind), He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the L-rd divided His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."

Maybe Jacob's sons were peoples like Gen. 28:3 says an assembly of peoples would come from him. Maybe G-d divided the sons of a man (Jacob) and set the borders for the peoples who came from him, the tribes of Israel.

I have read that adam can mean man or mankind, so maybe the usual translation is wrong. Any opinions?

Kenneth Greifer
http://www.messianicmistakes.com/
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