Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Rolf" <rolf.furuli AT sf-nett.no>]

Dear Barry,

I agree with you, there is no "prophetic tense." The view was that the Hebrew 
conjugations expressed completed and uncompleted action. However, many verbs 
dis violate these explanations. So, the concept "prophetic perfect" was 
coined in order to explain these anomalous verbs.

I made some comments on this in my dissertation: "A New Understanding of the 
Verbal System of Classical Hebrew An Attempt to Distinguish Between Semantic 
and Pragmatic Factors," Oslo:2005. If you do not have it in your University 
library, I can send you a copy of the comments regarding "prophetic perfect." 
 But it would be fine to have this dissertation in the library, because it is 
the only work where all the around 80.000 finite and infinite verbs in the 
Tanakh, the DSS, the inscriptions, and Ben Sira have been analyzed.


Best regards,

Rolf Furuli
Stavern
Norway


Lørdag 1. Desember 2012 15:00 CET skrev Barry <nebarry AT verizon.net>:

> I'm writing an essay in response to some people who are seriously
> misusing the concept. My argument is that it doesn't really exist, not
> even as a usage. That a particular passage may be prophetic has nothing
> to do with the particular aspect of the verbs employed, but the context
> of the passage and how it is then subsequently understood in the history
> of interpretation (I'm especially thinking of canonical interpretation,
> but not restricted to that). I'd appreciate any comments on this, or > 
> references to any published discussions beyond the apologetically driven
> "articles" I've seen on various web pages.
>
>
> --
> N.E. Barry Hofstetter
> Semper melius Latine sonat
> The American Academy
> http://www.theamericanacademy.net
> The North American Reformed Seminary
> http://www.tnars.net
> Bible Translation Magazine
> http://www.bible-translation.net
>
> http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog
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