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  • From: Barry <nebarry AT verizon.net>
  • To: "b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Alleged "prophetic tense"
  • Date: Sat, 01 Dec 2012 09:00:04 -0500

I'm writing an essay in response to some people who are seriously misusing the concept. My argument is that it doesn't really exist, not even as a usage. That a particular passage may be prophetic has nothing to do with the particular aspect of the verbs employed, but the context of the passage and how it is then subsequently understood in the history of interpretation (I'm especially thinking of canonical interpretation, but not restricted to that). I'd appreciate any comments on this, or references to any published discussions beyond the apologetically driven "articles" I've seen on various web pages.


--
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Semper melius Latine sonat
The American Academy
http://www.theamericanacademy.net
The North American Reformed Seminary
http://www.tnars.net
Bible Translation Magazine
http://www.bible-translation.net

http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog




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