Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Barry <nebarry AT verizon.net>]

I'm writing an essay in response to some people who are seriously 
misusing the concept. My argument is that it doesn't really exist, not 
even as a usage. That a particular passage may be prophetic has nothing 
to do with the particular aspect of the verbs employed, but the context 
of the passage and how it is then subsequently understood in the history 
of interpretation (I'm especially thinking of canonical interpretation, 
but not restricted to that). I'd appreciate any comments on this, or 
references to any published discussions beyond the apologetically driven 
"articles" I've seen on various web pages.


--
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Semper melius Latine sonat
The American Academy
http://www.theamericanacademy.net
The North American Reformed Seminary
http://www.tnars.net
Bible Translation Magazine
http://www.bible-translation.net

http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog