Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

My dear fellows,

 

at reading many versions of Ecc 9:12, I remain astonished with how the first part has been translated.

כי גם לא ידע האדם את עתו

For instance, ESV has:  For man does not know his time.

This is a quite literal translation. But... is this not a nonsense?

In a general way, everyone knows what happens around him, in his town, in his village, in his country. Of course he does not know absolutely everything, I mean he knows the general things that happen... he knows "his time".

I think that the real meaning of the verse is:

Men will never know WHAT will happen to them (in their life), WHEN it will happen... and HOW will it happen.

Of course the sentence can be put in the singular:

For man will never know WHAT...  WHEN...  HOW...

Is this behavior of translators (= this literal translation) not a disloyalty to the readers or a clear sign of their lack of skill as translators?

--
Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)

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-- 
Pere Porta