Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Peter:

The whole psalm is present tense, imperfective aspect. What we deal with
here is different moods.

In the first verse, there are three declarative phrases that defines a
blessed person. Hence the Qatal in all three phrases.

The second verse the Yiqtol indicates the desire, or subjunctive use of the
verb.

The third verse shows another aspect of the Yiqtol, namely the following of
a main clause which is Qatal, i.e. secondary to the main.

And we can go on.

The Qatal and Yiqtol conjugations reference neither tense (past, present,
future) nor aspect (completed, uncompleted action), and this psalm gives
examples that this is the case.

Karl W. Randolph.

On Thu, Mar 8, 2012 at 12:01 PM, <ps2866 AT bingo-ev.de> wrote:

> Dear B-Hebrew-friends,
>
> how can we understand the difference in Psa 1,1 with three verbs in
> Perfect and the following vers with a verb in the imperfect.
> Is it possible to take the three perfect forms as completed actions with a
> past perspective and vers 2 as imperfective action with iterative or
> habitual actionsform and view on present or future action?
> Thank you for any suggestion!
> Yours
> Peter, Germany
>
>