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  • From: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
  • To: Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
  • Cc: "b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org list" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Qamats gadol <> qamats qaton
  • Date: Mon, 23 Jan 2012 16:04:12 +0100

Do you then think that there is only a qamats which depending on the place
where it is placed has sound "a" or sound "o"? (the same graphical sign to
designate two different phonemes)

Pere Porta

2012/1/23 Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>

> There are indeed no two qamatsim, never was (in my opinion) and never will
> be. What I said (see my remark on CARPAT, 'France') is that occasionally we
> elect to override the NIKUD to enhance the clarity of our speech. Since the
> singular is MOTEN, 'loin', we prefer to pluralize it as MOTNAYIM and not
> MATNAYIM, and since it is O$ER, 'wealth', we prefer to say O$RO, 'his
> wealth' instead of A$RO, but this has nothing to do with the theologically
> motivated invention of the gadol and the qatan.
>
> The NIKUD was not given to Moses on mount Sinai, and the NAKDANIM need not
> have the last word on it.
>
> Isaac Fried, Boston University
>
>
> On Jan 23, 2012, at 1:09 AM, Pere Porta wrote:
>
> You state, Isaac, that there is in Hebrew no such thing "qamats gadol"
> and "qamats qaton"...
>
> Are you aware, Isaac, that you're in contradiction with all the Hebrew
> tradition which carefully distinguishes between the two qamatsim?
>
> Compare the first vowel in )MRW (Ps 64:6) with the first one in ($RW (Est
> 5:11).
>
> Do you think that the first vowel is quite the same thing in both words so
> that there is no difference in no respect between them?
>
> Fiendly,
>
>
> --
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)
>
>
>
>
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--
Pere Porta




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