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- From: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
- To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
- Subject: [b-hebrew] Is there any difference?
- Date: Mon, 23 Jan 2012 07:51:49 +0100
We have in Pr 8:14 the noun BYNH
We have in Dt 32:28 the noun TBWNH. Look also at Job 12:13.
Now... I wonder if there is some real distinction between them concerning
its meaning in our languages...
Do they both mean "understanding"?
Is the "understanding" of BYNH an understanding different from that of
TBWNH?
Are they absolute synonims?
Maybe our friend Karl Randolph, who is a lexicographer, can cast some light
on this doubt?
--
Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)
-
[b-hebrew] Is there any difference?,
Pere Porta, 01/23/2012
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Is there any difference?,
K Randolph, 01/23/2012
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Is there any difference?,
Pere Porta, 01/24/2012
- Re: [b-hebrew] Is there any difference?, K Randolph, 01/24/2012
- Re: [b-hebrew] Is there any difference?, Yigal Levin, 01/24/2012
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Is there any difference?,
Pere Porta, 01/24/2012
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Is there any difference?,
K Randolph, 01/23/2012
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