Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

Regarding Hb 1:13

To center the question I paste the version NET for the last part of the
verse:

Why do you say nothing when the wicked devour those more righteous than they
are?

My first question is:

Does it make sense saying that someone is "more righteous" than a wicked?

Can someone wicked be (even) somewhat, a little righteous?

Is the last part of the verse really comparing the righteousness of a
righteous with the righteousness of a wicked?  Or....... it rather says
something different?

And another question (Karl Randolph, do you have, as a lexicographer, an
answer to it?): what does here BL(  (devour) mean in our today language?

What does it mean that a wiched "devours" a righteous?

1. That the wicked kills the righteous?

2. That the wicked in some way oppresses the righteous?

3. That the wicked steals from the righteous?

4. The precedent concepts taken together?

5. Anything else? (other possibilities)

Pere Porta

(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)