Biblical Hebrew Forum

[David P Donnelly <davedonnelly1 AT juno.com>]

Sidney sidlee at charter.net 
Wed May 4 20:15:57 EDT 2011 
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Sidney Williams
(6) BHL and BHS are not "manuscripts" at all. They are scholarly editions
based on the Leningrad codex, which is a manuscript of the Masoretic
text, including the vowels that you so much dislike.
BHL means Leningrad codex. You do not seem to be familiar with the
manuscript names.
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Dave Donnelly asks Sidney Williams: Sidney would you express your
opinions as to why the Ben Chayyim Text of 1525 A.D. was written. It was
written on a printing press, and YHWH occurs 6518 times as
(yod-shewa-heh-defective holem-waw-qamets-heh]
The two men who seem to have been most involved in translating this
edition, [i.e, Tyndale and Martin Luther]  both believed that
{yod-shewa-heh-defective holem-waw-qamets-heh] was the correct Hebrew
spelling of God's name.
Dave Donnelly
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Sidney Williams
Bible translator and expositor
Historian extraordinaire

4. Re: [b-hebrew] Answer to Administrator

Judges 10.6 - the word to which you refer, (Theois ) is simply the dative
plural of ???? [in the Greek!]
But that matters not, for now you agree with me that ALHYM means, [plural]
"Gods."
The Septuagint agrees with you and me 220 times.  And it changes "plural
Gods" to singular God" - 2,492 times.  So then, you and I have both stated
that this is wrong.

"It is far more plausible an explanation of the frequency, semantics, and
syntax that ????? is treated as a singular noun."  [This is what we call
"creative writing" or "revisionist history."
The world is full of evil.]

Judges 10.6: WYCPW YNB LARWY T'SWT = And (W) they (W-Y) increased son of 'He
[is] Prince [of] God' (LARSY) to (L) doing ('SWT) the (H) evil (R').
AND - "Gods" has no verb attached to it, for the Jews were going to the
pagan "gods"-and the plural "gods" of sticks and stones were not moving at
all, as Isaiah quoted "He Is' as saying, "they cannot talk or see or walk."

Genesis 1.1 is another lie about plural Gods (ALHYM) with a single verb.
[How can a verb be single?  Did you ever think about it?  Give me an
example.]
BRASYT BRA ALHYM = "In (B) beginnings (Plural - T) creating [ARB -
participle because no Person Indicator, "Y" (He)]  Gods (ALHYM) of the
heavens (Night & Day = plural) - and of the earth."
AND - I have read Jews saying that this is a plural noun with a single verb,
so we change the noun to singular.  
AGAIN-what in the world is a single verb?
This is a participle.
I have boasted that I am the very first Hebrew lexicographer, and here are
two reasons why this is true: 1) there are no lexicographers that have not
banned the names of the Gods (ALHYM); 2) there are no lexicographers who
know what a participle is.

Genesis 1.16: WY'S ALHYM = And (W) He (Y) doing ('S), Gods (ALHYM).

Only verb forms with a prefixed Person Indicator are verbs.  Verb forms
without a prefixed Person Indicator are "participles."  [And, God brought
light into the world, and - I was there!]

AL TSA TA SM  HWHY ALMHA TSWA KY LA YNQH YHWH TA ASR YSA TA LSWA KY LA YNQH
YHWH TA ASR TA DMY LSWA - Exodus 20.7.

"You ("He [is] Prince [of] God") will not lift of name of 'He Is' (YHWH)
Gods of you (ALHYK) to lying for He will not hold innocent 'He Is' (YHWH) .

How many large books in the Hebrew have you completely translated?
Come on!  Boast about your works!
There is no such thing as a "dual form verb."
You suggest one, and I will produce both singular and plural uses of that
verb.
"If we were to use your morphology logic, we would have to conclude all
fathers (????) in the Bible were actually women, and all women (?????) were
actually men, which, when you put those two observations things together,
means that everyone was a man."

"Oh, dear, I know I'm risking shaming my mother again ."
George, you have no shame!  You could not make that senseless statement
above, if you
possessed any shame.
    
Consider these two words:
King - MKL - 2 Kings 2.11.
Queen - TKLM - 1 Kings 10.1.
Man - L'B - man.
Woman - HL'b - woman.

The feminine suffix attached to the masculine noun changes it to a female
noun.

You have boasted greatly of your "Gnostic" (seemingly) wisdom.  But this
fact must be learned in the very first week of, "Introduction to Hebrew" or,
"Introduction to Greek."  
The case endings must be mastered in the "very first week" or you will not
know what the class is talking about.

I will share with you another "gem of wisdom" that no "alleged" Bible
translator or "alleged lexicographer knows.  And I possess a pretty good
library of these works.

Your "alleged" dual verb is close to the truth, but you know nothing about
it.  The proper terminology is, "Double Person Indicator" prefixed to one
verb.

YSPN HANS = "Soul of" [Me = "He Is"] hating her (H) - Isaiah 1.14.

This is consistent linking of male and female into one person.  In other
words, "Man is married to his soul."

Genesis 5.24: WYTHLK = And (W) He (Y)/ She (T) walked (KLH) .
So, He (Enoch) She (Soul of Enoch) walked.

These are few but sporatic through the Hebrew text.  
KJV = And Enoch walked with God .
NKJV =And Enoch walked with God .
Kohlenberger Interlinear = And he walked, Enoch .
Young's Literal Translation = And Enoch walked .
Amplified Version = Enoch walked .
NAS = Then Enoch walked .
NIV = Enoch walked .
NLT, AD 2008 = . walking in close fellowship .
ESV, AD 2009 = Enoch walked .

And I have more of this trash.  

LXX = And Enoch was well-pleasing [no mention of, "walk."]

Yes, George, I tell you in all truth, "The truth is rare." 

I beseech you humbly, "Take it easy on your mother."

Sidney Williams