Biblical Hebrew Forum

[jimstinehart AT aol.com]

George Athas:

I would appreciate your opinion, and anyone else's opinion, on the 
relationship between )L and )YL.  They both seem to connote "mighty".  Does 
one derive from the other?  Or are they two different spellings of the same 
word?  Or are they two completely different words?  Different lexicons offer 
different opinions as to those questions.  Why are there so many cases, like 
the word for "rams" in the plural, where the root seemingly can be either )L 
or )YL?  Presumably )L-N and )L-WN are the same word, with the latter simply 
being plene spelling.  But what is the relationship, if any, between )L-N or 
)L-WN, and )YL-WN?

Jim Stinehart
Evanston, Illinois




-----Original Message-----
From: George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>
To: JimStinehart AT aol.com <JimStinehart AT aol.com>; B-Hebrew 
<b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thu, Apr 14, 2011 11:08 pm
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] "Oak Tree" in Biblical Hebrew


Jim, I don't see anything here that you're offering for discussion. You're 
just 
seudo-publishing a theory. Unless there's a specific issue for engaging, 
please 
on't treat B-Hebrew like your own journal space.

EORGE ATHAS
oore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
ww.moore.edu.au

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