Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Isaac:

On Sun, Feb 27, 2011 at 8:51 AM, Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu> wrote:

> 1. You are confusing the Hebrew etymology of the original with the English
> etymology of its purported translation.
>

Who said anything about the etymology of the English meanings?

The Hebrew meaning of one word, as translated, is to pervert, and the Hebrew
meaning of another is to be stout, yet you claim they are related. So what
is the relationship? How do you get from one meaning to the other?


> 2. "Modern" Hebrew and "biblical" Hebrew are one and the same language.
>

Shall we start with showing differences in grammar that show they are two
different but related languages? Then add many words that have different
meanings?


> Isaac Fried, Boston University
>
> It is commonly recognized in linguistics that similarity in sound, or even
at times the same sound, usually does not reflect similarity in meaning. In
order to show etymology, one must show how the meanings are related as well.
Hence my questions above.

Karl W. Randolph.