Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

Sébastien,

As an answer to your question:

1. In a general way, whenever the qamats qatan represents the sound 'o'
--which is usually represented by a holam in the basic word-  then the
syllable is read as with vowel 'o'.

There are plenty of examples: find them in Gn 31:42 (1), my poverty; Lv 20:3
(2), my holiness; Pr 5:13 (3), my ear; 1Ch 27:1 (4), the months of the
year.....
The first three have suffix -y (= my); the last is a plural construct.

Similarly we could get a list with suffix -kha (your, of male). If it is of
your interest, ask me for it, please.

(1) For the basic look at Ps 88:10
(2) For the basic look at Ex 3:5
(3) For the basic look at 2Sa 22:45
(4) For the basic look at Nm 9:22

2. But sometimes the qamats (remark: NOT qamats hatuph!) represents the
qamats (and NOT the holam) of the basic. Then the reading 'a' is preserved:
look at Neh 12:22 (5), the Persian (male). Also the noun you provided in
your fist post (*your heart*) fits here.

(5) For the basic look at Dn 11:2


3. There are some especial cases   -some exceptions, if you prefer to call
them so-   not fitting the precedent but..... maybe it is not time for you
to face them since you're at the first steps of your learning.

If there are some doubts, please, tell us.

Hoping this is helpful,

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)



2011/2/28 Sébastien Louis <sebalou AT hotmail.com>

> Pere,
>
> million thanks for your explanations, very clear in this particular case.
> As I'm still a beginner in biblical Hebrew, may I ask if there is a general
> rule saying when we should pronounce qamats and when we should pronounce
> qamats-hatuph? I thought that in every closed, unaccented syllabe, it was
> qamats-hatuph. But I see that there are many exceptions and cases where it
> is not the case...
>
> Thanks again,
>
> Sébastien Louis
>
> ------------------------------
> Date: Mon, 28 Feb 2011 12:27:51 +0100
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Qames hatuph - syllable and sheva
> From: pporta7 AT gmail.com
> To: sebalou AT hotmail.com
> CC: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
>
>
> Sébastien,
>
> you bring here two different cases.
>
> 1. You refer to the word we find in Dt 6:5. There are other similar cases
> in the Bible (look for instance at Ps 55:23; at 1Sa 9:10 or at Gn 40:19).
>
> Remark:
> -All nouns consisting of three root letters, the first one having shewa and
> the second one having qamats (all....with *five* exceptions) ------> take
> qamats under the second consonant when they take the masculine suffix for
> you (male).
> --Most nouns consisting of three root letters, the first one having tsere
> (long e) and the second one having qamats (the word you mention is one of
> these: look at Dt 28:28 for the basic or absolute) behave similarly if they
> do not come from roots ayin-waw nor have a guttural for their first root
> consonant.
>
> 2. The Hoph'al.
>
> The first syllable in the Hoph'al is ALWAYS read with vowel 'o' and in the
> unvowellized writing a waw is inserted.
>
> So, הָקְטַל
>
> is ALWAYS read or pronounced as "hoqtal" and it is always written as הוקטל
> in the writing without vowels (namely the usual Israeli script...)
>
> You have other cases in Jr 6:6, Joel 1:9 and in Dn 9:1
>
> Is this clear enough for your purposes?
>
>
> Heartly
>
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
>
> 2011/2/28 Sébastien Louis <sebalou AT hotmail.com>
>
>
> Hello,
>
>
>
>
>
> I’ve got one question
> about the qames and qames-hatuph (linked also with the sheva and the
> syllabes). If the qames is
> in a closed, unaccented syllable, it is pronounced qames-hatuph. Take these
> 2 words:
>  לְבָבְךָ
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
> הָקְטַל
>
>
>
>
> My question is: why do we pronounce "le-va-ve-kha" (and not "le-vov-kha")
> on the
> one hand; and on the other hand, “hoq-tal”? Both cases
> seem to me identical, i.e. a qames in a closed, unaccented syllable. So why
> 2 different rules?
>
>
>
>
> In
>  other words, why is the qames in the first case a
> qames and not a qames-hatuph since it is followed by a sheva, so in a
> closed,
> unaccented syllable (I presume the accent falls on the last
> syllable)? Or, to say it again differently, why is the syllable "va" in
> "le-va-ve-kah" open and not closed, since followed by a sheva?
>
>
>
>
>
> Many thanks in advance if you can help.
>
>
> Sébastien
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>
>
>
>
> --
> Pere Porta
>
>


-- 
Pere Porta