Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Arnaud Fournet" <fournet.arnaud AT wanadoo.fr>]

From: "Chavoux Luyt" <chavoux AT gmail.com>

> I just want to ask if the Biblical Hebrew Grammar that was developed
> really come from European languages?
> E.g. the whole Kal (p'al), pi'el, nif'al, hitpa'el, hif'il, hof'al and
> pu'al verbal forms are part of standard Hebrew
> Grammars, but is not found in any European languages as far as I know.
> Or are these only applicable to Mishnaic
> and Modern Hebrew, and not also to Biblical Hebrew? What is probable,
> is that the correct verbal form of a verb might many
> times not be visible in the consonant-only Hebrew texts of Biblical
> Hebrew, especially before the usage of the
> early forms of "plene" spelling (using waw and yod as placeholders for 
> vowels).
***

That part is quite obviously derived from Arabic Grammarians.
The verb is even the same...

Arnaud Fournet