Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bryant J. Williams III" <bjwvmw AT com-pair.net>]

Dear Karl,

Having read the article also I find that some of the examples are good, but 
do not seem to reflect "Semitic" or "Hebrew" ideas; at least to my way of 
thinking of the issue. He gives too broad or general description of the QTL 
and YQTL. ISTM that Hebrew grammars are using Indo-European categories, 
ideas, etc. to describe phenomena found in Semitic writings. The pigeon hole 
approach just does not work. Of course, I do not have a background in 
linguistics and its terminology, but the definitions of various terms found 
in linguistics is so broad and confusing it is a wonder that anyone is able 
to understand one another.

Rev. Bryant J. Williams III
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: K Randolph 
  To: Bryant J. Williams III 
  Cc: B-Hebrew 
  Sent: Tuesday, January 25, 2011 6:49 AM
  Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Article by Andrew Bowling


  Thanks, Bryant:


  On Mon, Jan 24, 2011 at 1:52 PM, Bryant J. Williams III 
<bjwvmw AT com-pair.net> wrote:

    Dear List,

    See http://www.gial.edu/GIALens/vol1-2/Bowling-Paper.pdf for the article 
"The
    General/Gnomic Usage of Hebrew Morphologies in the Book of Isaiah" by 
Andrew
    Bowling

    Rev. Bryant J. Williams III



  I read the article, and the examples presented in it could be read in more 
than one way, including that the qatal and yiqtol are tenseless and 
aspectless, but encode for other ideas. He does not prove his claims.


  I have already presented what I think are the reasons for the qatal and 
yiqtol, and they have only a few equivalents to grammatical concepts found in 
Indo-European languages.


  Karl W. Randolph.


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