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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] pere's question on he/she/him/her

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  • From: "Paul Zellmer" <pzellmer AT sc.rr.com>
  • To: "'Pere Porta'" <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] pere's question on he/she/him/her
  • Date: Sat, 18 Dec 2010 07:21:27 -0500

Pere,

The infinitive in these examples is used, in effect, to make a "noun-like"
word out of a verb. In English, this is generally done by using the gerund
form (-ing) form of the verb. When the pronoun is included, that pronoun is
in the form that is used when it is attached to a noun, in other words, the
possessive or "of/by + objective form", rather than the forms when it is
attached to verbs (the subjective or objective).

So, in the four examples here, the "literal" English translation would be:

1. His doing (or the doing of/by him)

2. His going up (or the going up of/by him)

3. Her birthing or her giving birth (or the birthing of her/the giving
birth of/by her)

4. Her descending (or the descending of/by her)

Hope this helps,

Paul Zellmer

-----Original Message-----

> >Hi, list.
> >When trying to literally translate infinitives with personal suffix (the
> >suffix playing the part of the subject of the infinitive) such as:
>
> >1. (A&OTO -------- Jr 30:24
> >2. (ALOTO -------- Is 11:16
> >3. LIDTAH ---------- Gn 38:27
> >4. RIDTAH --------- Dt 20:20
> >and so on...

--
Pere Porta
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