Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

Fred,

maybe you intended to say 2Ch 2:17 in your second quotation?

Pere Porta

2010/12/14 fred burlingame <tensorpath AT gmail.com>

> Hello all:
>
> Does this little word testify to the big fact that individual words possess
> no meaning outside of actual usage?
>
> In Isaiah  63:3,
>
> פורה דרכתי לבדי ומעמים אין איש אתי ואדרכם באפי וארמסם בחמתי ויז נצחם על
> בגדי
> וכל מלבושי אגאלתי
>
> the operative word נצח becomes "grape juice," figurative of blood.
>
> In 2 Chronicles 2:18,
>
> ויעש מהם שבעים אלף סבל ושמנים אלף חצב בהר ושלשת אלפים ושש מאות מנצחים
> להעביד
> את העם
>
> the relevant word נצח changes course entirely, and becomes "ones managing."
>
> In Lamentations 3:18,
>
> ואמר אבד נצחי ותוחלתי מיהוה
>
> the word in question נצח moves again substantially in meaning to
> "strength."
>
> Returning to Isaiah, 13:20,
>
> לא תשב לנצח ולא תשכן עד דור ודור ולא יהל שם ערבי ורעים לא ירבצו  שם
>
> the word reverses course yet again into a "long period of time."
>
> Of course, an alternate conclusion presents itself. Does the leningrad
> codex
> include an amalgam of different languages compiled into the form of single
> document, via centuries of creating and editing pieces and parts of it?
> Such
> a conclusion would permit the use of dictionaries, whereas the original
> conclusion would not. For if the word depends entirely on what a user
> chooses for meaning, in his arbitrary wisdom, then until used, it has no
> meaning at all.
>
> I welcome your comments.
>
> regards,
>
> fred burlingame
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