Biblical Hebrew Forum

[fred burlingame <tensorpath AT gmail.com>]

Why translate?

It means this; no more, no less....

כי ילד ילד לנו בן נתן לנו ותהי המשרה על שכמו ויקרא שמו פלא יועץ אל גבור
אביעד שר שלום

Given the multiplicity of meaning, usage & nuance of each of the words in
this verse, is not the verse (and indeed the entire language and masoretic
text) locked to translation?

And the same reasoning holds true for the greek and aramaic manuscripts? The
verse means what it means in those languages. And any attempt to translate
those manuscripts similarly doomed to failure?

regards,

fred burlingame

On Tue, Dec 14, 2010 at 7:25 PM, Joseph Roberts 
<josephroberts3 AT gmail.com>wrote:

> I have read several Jewish Translations of this verse and was shocked how
> rashi seems to have another take on this verse, is this more of a fringe
> translation in Judaism, where the child is only called the prince of peace?
> My understanding of the verse always stemmed from the Hebrew in light of
> the
> LXX and the Latin Vulgate with the child not having names of God but rather
> "Wonderous, Advisor, mighty Judge, father of the age to come."
> For a child has been born to us, a son given to us, and the authority is
> upon his shoulder, and the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the
> everlasting
> Father, called his name, "the prince of peace."- Rashi's Translationf of
> Isaiah 9:6/5
>
> -Joseph Roberts
>
>