Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

Asking "Are both forms right?" I was rather thinking, Isaac, of modern
Hebrew.

We dealt in the past with your view about the Academy of the Hebrew Language
(and moderator Yigal asked you what you would say if someone states that the
"Mathematical Society of the United States of America" consists of several
dozens of druids).

Concerning my first question, both forms are attested in the biblical text
but maybe in today Hebrew only one is considered as being right.

Another example:

In today Hebrew the form KULLAK, all you (female) we find in Is 22:1 is no
more considered right. Or, if you prefer, it is no more used [but this does
not mean that this form should be removed from the Bible].

The form KULLEK (all you, female) (found in Is 14:29) is considered as being
right and used instead in today Hebrew.
This is the intention of my question.

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
2010/12/8 Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>

>  1. A curious question. What do you mean by "are both forms right?", is
> the HB wrong?
>
> 2. I think that the dagesh preceded the NIYKUD. An unusual dagesh means, in
> my opinion, that the NAKDAN (or NAKDANIYM) decided to override an existing
> reading tradition.
>
> 2. A dagesh is expected after a QUBUC in a letter not marked by a Schwa.
>
> 3. Dr. SHAUL BARQALIY in his, widely used, "the complete table of names"
>
> דר שאול ברקלי: לוח השמות השלם
>
> brings both forms.
>
> 4. The Hebrew "Academy" has no authority to dictate right and wrong (even
> though they pretend to have it, speaking grandiosely about their "decisions"
> in this or that matter). Being a rabbinical institution they go out, anyway,
> from the assumption that the NIYKUD was handed down to Moses on mount
> Sinai.
>
>
> Isaac Fried, Boston University
>
>   On Dec 8, 2010, at 2:02 AM, Pere Porta wrote:
>
>   Noun (OZ, strength (Jd 9:51)
>
> We have in Ps 21:2 (FZKF, your strength (of a male)
> We have in Ps 66:3 (UZKF, your strength (of a male)
> (Both have dagesh in their letter Z)
>
> My question is: are both forms right?  Has the Academy of the Hebrew
> Language stated something hereon?
>
> Kind regards from
>
> --
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
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-- 
Pere Porta