Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Will Parsons <wbparsons AT alum.mit.edu>]

On Wed, 27 Oct 2010 17:08:06 +0200, Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il> 
wrote:
> 
> Isaac is not going to agree, but I would think that the dagesh is meant to
> compensate for the loss of the Yod.

I would think that it would be better regarded as an instance (irregular
to be sure) of yod being assimilated to the following taw, rather than
diphthongizing as usual (/baytim/ -> /battim/ rather than /be:tim/).

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Pere Porta
> Sent: Wednesday, October 27, 2010 4:57 PM
> To: Randall Buth
> Cc: Hebrew
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why dagesh in batey?
> 
> Hello, all.
> I'm wondering why noun 'bayit', house, takes a dagesh within the tav in its
> plural form (in both absolute and construct.)
> 
> Look at Am 3:15, where both plural kinds appear.
> 
> Is there a good reason for this dagesh?

-- 
William Parsons