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  • From: Garth Grenache <garthgrenache AT hotmail.com>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Jerusalem
  • Date: Tue, 13 Jul 2010 14:41:19 +1000



Thanks Yitzhak for your excellent reply! (and for showing me I mistakenly
posted off-list)

So then, do you
suppose that the longer spelling YRWShLYM entered the text of the Hebrew
Bible by the original authors of Esther and 1Chronicles? Or from a
later scribe?

When do you envisage this spelling coming into the
Hebrew Bible?

I notice in the ~66 C.E. coin, that the spelling is
new, but the script is old!
Is this the earliest known occurrence of
this spelling?
Is there reason to suggest that the spelling was much
earlier?

Actually, there is evidence for a short 'e' (segol) in
the Aramaic pronunciation, in Dan 5:2; 5:3; 6:10; and in the Aramaic
parts of Ezra. It seems the Aramaic pronunciation found in the MT
typically (maybe always?) is with a short 'e' in the last syllable.

If
the Jews of the revolt against Pagan lordship produced this spelling,
YRWShLYM, it may have been to combat Pagan influence on the
pronunciation of the word, to mark the final vowel as long, and not
short as in Aramaic. Wasn't it all about taking Jerusalem back under
Jewish rule?

The use of the old 'paleo' script on their coins *5
centuries after it began to fall out of use* may likewise indicate an
intentional resistance from Aramaic(pagan) influence. [The square
script which replaced the paleo script was taken from Aramaic writing.]

"Our
city! Our script! Our pronunciation!" maybe?

Garth Grenache.
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