Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

I read Pr 10:11 in both the Hebrew and the Greek translation LXX and I
remark that the Greek has "hand" as an equivalence for the Hebrew "mouth"
(peh, construct pi).

"The mouth of a righteous *man is *a well of life: but violence covereth the
mouth of the wicked" (KJV)
Is there a good reason to explain this so strong change from Hebrew
to Greek?



-- 
Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)