Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Pere:

On Tue, Jul 6, 2010 at 10:33 PM, Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com> wrote:

> I read Pr 10:11 in both the Hebrew and the Greek translation LXX and I
> remark that the Greek has "hand" as an equivalence for the Hebrew "mouth"
> (peh, construct pi).
>
> Is there a good reason to explain this so strong change from Hebrew
> to Greek?
>
> That’s not the only change between the Hebrew and Greek.

Possibilities include that the text that the LXX translator used had ‘hand’
instead of ‘mouth’, or that it’s just a poor translation for this verse.

>
>
> --
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)


Karl W. Randolph.