Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>]

The infinitive absolute (halbesh - "I will clothe") continues the line of
discourse after a finite verb. - Leupold referencing K(S), 218b [Koenig's
Syntax]. 

Since the preceding verb is 1st person perfect, the infinitive continues the
1st person.

This is very common, as it is in English. i.e I went to the store to buy a
coat.

YLT translates it as "See, I have caused thine iniquity to pass away from
off thee, so as to clothe thee with costly apparel." 

I think YLT captures the meaning of the infinitive, but loses the meaning of
the conjuction "and". In English we cannot have "and" in between a finite
verb and an infinitive verb. 

I think the meaning is that the Lord clothing Joshua with splendid raiment
is enabled by the Lord removing Joshua's iniquity from him, but that is not
the only purpose of the Lord removing Joshua's iniquity. It would be like
saying, "See, I have caused your iniquity to pass away from off you, and
based on this I clothe you with costly apparel."

Sincerely,
-Steve Miller
Detroit
www.voiceInWilderness.info
Thou hast seen it; for their mischief
and spite Thou wilt repay:
The wretch commits himself to Thee.
Thou art the orphan's stay. (Ps10:14)

-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of kenneth greifer
Sent: Thursday, March 11, 2010 4:47 PM
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe"


I read on the netbible that the verb "I will clothe" in Zechariah 3:4 is the
infinitive absolute used as the imperfect first person. Is this common or
unusual? Are there other examples of this? 

 

Kenneth Greifer